CATTI英语三级《笔译综合能力》真题
CATTI英语三级《笔译综合能力》真题及答案
CATTI三级英语笔译考试大纲中，考生至少要掌握5000个以上英语词汇，有英文中文互译的信息表达能力。翻译要求做到信、达、雅，忠实原文，把握文章主旨。下面给大家带来CATTI英语三级《笔译综合能力》真题，希望对你们有所帮助。
CATTI英语三级《笔译综合能力》真题
Section l: Vocabulary and Grammar (25 Points)
This section consists of three parts. Read the directions fog each part before answering the questions. The time for this section is 25 minutes.
Part l Vocabulary Selection
In this part, there are 20 incomplete sentences. Below each sentence, there are four words or phrases respectively marked by letters A, B, C and D. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. There is only ONE right answer. Then blacken the corresponding letter as required on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET.
1. Grover Cleveland was the first president in the White House.
A. got married B. to get married C. has got married D. was married
2. If cauliflowers are not from extreme temperatures, the heads get discolored.
A. protected B. Shelter C. shade D. saved
3. The gas from the tank is dangerous.
A. given off B. giving out C. giving away D. given up
4. When it started to snow, we turned round and the hotel.
A. got by B. searched for C. made for D. cleared up
5. Since writing home to their parents for money, they had lived hope.
A. in B. for C. on D. through
6. Rice is the food of most Southeast Asians.
A. common B. general C. staple D. popular
7. William Byrd was the owner of the largest library in colonial .
A. period B. time C. times D. periods
8. Exobiology is the study of life other planets.
A. in B. at C. on D. to
9. The Declaration of Independence, the Constitution of the United States, was drawn up with the help of Benjamin Franklin.
A. and B. also C. as well as D. so too
10. It was from the Lowell Laboratory that the ninth , Pluto, was sighted in 1930.
A. planet B. constellation C. stardom D. satellite
11. The rodent, the mouse, rat, guinea pig, and porcupine, are mammals with incisor-like teeth in both jaws.
A. made up B. including C. consisting D. constitute
12. into oceans and rivers is a serious form of pollution.
A. Pouring sewage B. Emptying litter C. Throwing garbage D. Dumping sewage
13. Products which are made from dirts and are high temperatures are known as ceramics.
A. tempered in B. subjected to C. exposed to D. baked in
14. A pigment called melanin protects the layers of skin from sun rays.
A. under B. below C. underlying D. underneath
15. Oranges are a source of vitamin C.
A. well B. better C. good D. very
16. Even after having their grandchildren live with them for ten years, the couple felt that children these days was the most difficult of all family matters.
A. rising B. raising C. caring D. taking care
17. The most important of the farmers in Iraq is dates, of which Iraq is the world's leading exporter.
A. economic crop B. cash crop C. money crop D. staple
18. More has been learned about the Moon than any other of the Earth's neighbors in space because of the Apollo program, which enabled men to walk on the Moon and bring back hundreds of pounds of .
A. rocks B. rock C. stone D. stones
19. the variety that the average family has in beaf, fish, poultry, and vegetarian recipes, they find most meals unexciting.
A. In spite B. Inspite C. Despite of D. Despite
20. The speaker have criticized the paraprofessionals, knowing full well that they were seated in the audience.
A. should not to B. must not C. ought not to D. may not
Part 2 Vocabulary replacement
This part consists of 15 sentences in which one word or phrase is underline. Below each sentence, there four choices respectively marked by letters A, B, C and D. You are to select the ONE choice that can replace the underlined word without causing any grammatical error or changing the principalmeaning of the sentence. There is only ONE right answer. Then blacken the corresponding letter as required on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET.
21. Iceland has the oldest parliament, which goes as far back to 930 A.D. when Althing, the legislativeorganization, was established.
A. office B. adobe C. assembly D. building
22. The only problem with the debate last week was that the beginning sounded more like a personal attack than a dispassionate, intellectual arguing.
A. discussion B. argument C. talk D. speech
23. Susan Jones was at the bus stop well on time totake the 7:01 bus, but she had to miss her breakfast to do it.
A. catch up with B. catch C. run up to D. be catching
24. Since her father could not drive her to the airport, she requested her uncle todrive her instead.
A. take B. bring C. dispatch D. deliver
25. A famous collection of Persian, Indian, and Arabian folktales, the Arabian Nights was supposedly told by the legendary queen Scheherazade to her husband every night for l,001 days.
A. imaginary B imagery C. fabled D. legend
26. What may be the oldest fossil footprint yet found was discovered in June 1968 by William J. Meister, a non-professional fossil collector.
A. a part-time B. a spare-time C. an untrained D. an amateur
27. Most of us tbink of sharks as dangerous, owing to lack of information rather than fear.
A. due to B. because C. as D. for
28. Double Eagle II, the first trans-Atlantic balloon, was greeted by avid crowds in France.
A. eager B. surging C. appreciative D. vigorous
29. The discovery of the connection between aspirin and Reyessyndrome, a rare and deadly ailment, is a recent example of the caution with which drugs must be used even for medical purposes.
A. disease B. sick C. ill D. illness
30. My parents moved out of their old home sometime last year after they had celebrated their 50thyear there.
A. anniversary B. years old C. age D. wedding
31. The library she worked in lent books, magazines, audio-cassettes and maps to its customers, who could keep them for four weeks.
A. borrowers B. lenders C. patrons D. clients
32. A common question that people ask a story writer is whether or not he has experienced what he has written about.
A. fiction B. science C. imaginary D. literary
33. At t.he World Literacy Center, an organization that works to help people read, the helpers work hard, enabling them to successfully reach their goals.
A. assistants B. volunteers C. part-timers D. amateurs
34. The officers made it clear that they were letting her go only because that she was old and not because she was above suspicion.
A. for reason B. due to C. because of D. on the grounds
35. The book, which is a useful guide for today's young people, deals with many questions and problems that face them at school and at home as well as in society.
A. are faced B. confront C. in opposition D. meet
Part 3 Error Correction
This part consists of 15 sentences in which is an underlined part that indicates a grammatical error. Below each sentence, there are four choices respectively marked by letters A, B, C and D. You are to select the ONE choice and replace the underlined element(s) so that the error is erased and corrected. There is only ONE right answer. Then blacken the corresponding letter as required on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET.
36. All don't have a free ticket must pay the admission fee.
A. Everyone who doesn't have a free ticket B. No one who doesn't have a free ticket
C. No one who has free tickets D. Anyone who has free tickets
37. When I last saw them, the police had chased the robbers down Columbus Street.
A. were chasing B. was chasing C. chased D. were on a chase
38. Erosion that is a slow process, but it constantly changes the features on the surface of the earth.
A. which is B. although C. being D. is
39. When an organism is completely encapsulated and preserved,it becomes a fossil, therefore turning into evidence of things that once lived.
A. thereby B. as a result of C. so D. in the end
40. The pictures of the Loch Ness Monster show a remarkable resemblance to a plesiosaur, a large water reptile of the Mesozoic era presuming extinct for more than 70 million years.
A. supposed B. presumably C. presumptuous D. is presumed
41. In our own galaxy, the Milky Way, there are perhaps 200 billion stars, a small part of them probably have planets on which life is feasible.
A. a small fraction in which B. a small fraction of which
C. a small fraction which D. which a fraction of
42. “But you'll be able to come, won't you?" "Yes, I think such."
A. that B. it C. so D. this
43. The professor is quite difficult pleased.
A. to please B. to be pleased C. for pleasing D. pleasing
44. Because everyone knows, facts speak louder than words.
A. Since B. That C. It D. As
45. The trapeze artist who ran away with the clown clown broke up the lion tamer's heart.
A. broke away B. broke down C. broke D. broken down
46. His heavy drinking and fond of gambling makes him a poor role model.
A. and fact that he gambles B. and that he gambles C. and he gambles which D. and gambling
47. Depression that inflicts people who believe their lives lack content when the rush of the busy week stops referred to by a prominent psychiatrist as Sunday Neurosis.
A. has been referred to by a prominent psychiatrist
B. has been referred to as by a prominent psychiatrist
C. a prominent psychiatrist has referred to it
D. it has been referred to by a prominent psychiatrist
48. Just as there are occupations that require college degrees also there are occupations for which technical training is necessary.
A. so to there are B. so too there are C. so there are D. so too are there
49. Most of the older civilizations which flourished during the fifth century B.C. are died out.
A. they have died out B. has died out C. have died out D. they had died out
50. The student asked her professor if he would have gone on the space ship he did know earlier.
A. if he knew B. if he knows C. he had known D. had he known
Section 2: Reading Comprehension (55 Points)
In this section you will find after each of the passages a number of questions or unfinished statements about the passage, each with four (A, B, C and D) suggested answers or ways of finishing. You must choose the one which you think fits best. Then blacken the corresponding letter as required on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET. The time for this section is 75 minutes.
Questions 51-56 are based on the following passage.
Awarded the Nobel Prize for physics in 1918, German physicist Max Planck is best remembered as the originator of the quantum theory. His work helped usher in a new era in theoretical physics and revolutionized the scientific community's understanding of atomic and subatomic processes.
Planck introduced an idea that led to the quantum theory, which became the foundation of twentieth century physics. In December 1900, Planck worked out an equation that described the distribution of radiation accurately over the range of low to high frequencies. He had developed a theory which depended on a model of matter that seemed very strange at the time. The model required the emission of electromagnetic radiation in small chunks or particles. These particles were later called quantums. The energy associated with each quantum is measured by multiplying the frequency of the radiation, v, by a universal constant, h. Thus, energy, or E, equals hv. The constant, h, is known as Planck's constant. It is now recognized as one of the fundamental constants of the world.
Planck announced his findings in 1900, but it was years before the full consequences of his revolutionary quantum theory were recognized. Throughout his life, Planck made significant contributions to optics, thermodynamics and statistical mechanics, physical chemistry, among other fields.
51. In which of the following fields did Max Planck NOT make a significant contribution?
A. Optics. B. Thermodynamics. C. Statistical mechanics. D. Biology.
52. The word "revolutionary" as used in Line 16 means .
A. radical C. momentous B. extremist D. militaristic
53. It can be inferred from the passage that Planck's work led to the development of which of the following?
A. The rocket. B. The atomic bomb. C. The internal combustion engine. D. The computer.
54. The particles of electromagnetic radiation given off by matter are known as .
A. quantums B. atoms C. electrons D. valences
55. The implication in this passage is that .
A. only a German physicist could discover such a theory
B. quantum theory, which led to the development of twentieth century physics, is basically a mathematical formula
C. Planck's constant was not discernible before 1900
D. radiation was hard to study
56. "An idea" as used in Line 5, refers to .
A. a model of matter B. emission of electromagnetic radiation C. Quantums
D. the equation that described the distribution of radiation accurately over the range of Iow to high frequencies
Questions 57-62 are based on the following passage.
There has been much speculation about the origin of baseball. In 1907 a special commis sion decided that the modern game was invented by Abner Doubleday in 1839. One hundred years later the National Baseball Museum was opened to honor Doubleday. Historians, however, disagree about the origin of baseball. Some say that baseball comes from bat-and-ball games of ancient times. It is a matter of record that in the 1700s English boys played a game they called "baseball". Americans have played a kind of baseball since about 1800. At first the American game had different rules and different names in various parts of the country - "town ball", "rounders", or "one old cat". Youngsters today still play some of these simplified forms of the game.
Baseball did not receive a standard set of rules until 1845, when Alexander Cartwright organized the Knickerbocker Baseball Club of New York City. The rules Cartwright set up for his nine-player team were widely adopted by other clubs and formed the basis of modern baseball. The game was played on a"diamond" infield with the bases 90 feet apart. The first team to score 21 runs was declared the winner.By 1858 the National Association of Baseball Players was formed with 25 amateur teams. The Cincinnati Red Stockings began to pay players in 1869.
57. Which of the following is true about the origins of baseball?
A. Historians agree that baseball was invented by Abner Doubleday.
B. Baseball, as played in the early 19th century, differed very little from today's game.
C. As early as the 1700s, English boys played a game called "baseball".
D. The first standard set of baseball rules was established at the turn of the century.
58. What was the first professional baseball team called?
A. New York Knickerbockers. B. Milwaukee Braves. C. Cincinnati Red Stockings. D. Brooklyn Dodgers.
59. Who first gave baseball a standard set of rules?
A. Abner Doubleday. B. Alexander Cartwright. C. Albert Spalding. D. Babe Ruth.
60. Which of the following was NOT a predecessor of baseball?
A. Rounders. B. Town ball. C. Cricket. D. One old cat.
61. The tone of the passage is .
A. persuasive B. informative C. biased D. argumentative
62. The passage implies that until 1869, baseball was played for all of the following reasons EXCEPT .
A. exercise B. leisure C. profit D. socializing
Questions 63-68 are base~l on the following passage.
The blue of the sea is caused by the scattering of sunlight by tiny particles suspended in the water. Blue light, being of short wavelength, is scattered more efficiently than light of longer wavelengths. Although waters of the open ocean are commonly some shade of blue, green water is commonly seen near coasts, especially in tropical or subtropical regions. rf'his is caused by yellow pigments being mixed with blue water. Phytoplankton are one source of the yellow pigment. Other microscopic plants may color the water brown or brownish-red. Near the shore, silt or sediment in suspension can give water a brownish hue. Outflow oflarge rivers can often be observed many miles offshore by the coloration of suspended soil particles.
Marine phytoplankton (Greek for "plant wanderers") are microscopic single-celled plants that include diatorns, dinoflagellates, coccolithophorids, green algae, and blue-green algae, among others. The growth of these organisms, which photosynthesize light, depends on a delicate balance of nutrient enrichment via vertical mixing, which is often limited by the availability of nitrogen and light. Diatorns are one-celled plants with patterned glass coverings. Each glass, or silicon dioxide box, is ornamented with species-specific designs, pits, and perforations making them popular with microscopists and, more recently, electron scanning microscopists.
63. Green water near coastlines is almost always caused by .
A. sand color B. red pigments in coastal waters
C. blue pigment D. reflected light and yellow pigment from plant life
64. Phytoplankton are the source of which color pigment?
A. Red. B. Green. C. Yellow. D. Blue.
65. What can give waters a brownish hue near the shore?
A. Sediment. B. Phytoplankton. C. Blue pigment. D. Diatoms.
66. Which of the following is NOT a type of phytoplankton?
A. Green algae. B. Diatoms. C. Blue-green algae. D. Amoeba.
67. The growth of phytoplankton is often limited by the availability of
A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. nitrogen D. carbon dioxide
68. The main idea of this passage is that .
A. light causes sea color
B. sea coloration is varied because of a combination of length of light waves and microscopic plant life and silt
C. microscopic plant life causes sea color
D. water composition causes sea color
Questions 69-75 are based on the following passage.
The United States government publishes guidelines for appropriate nutrient intakes. These are known as the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and are updated regularly based on new research in nutrition. RDAs are suggested amounts of calories, protein, and some minerals and vitamins for an adequate diet. For other dietary substances, specific goals must await further research. However, for the U.S. population as a whole, increasing starch and fiber in one's diet and reducing calories (primarily from fats, sugar, and alcohol) is sensible. These suggestions are especially appropriate for people who have other factors for chronic diseases due to family history of obesity, premature heart disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, and high blood cholesterol, or for those who use tobacco.
Snacks can furnish about one-fourth of the calorie requirements among teenagers. Those snacks should also provide much of the day's allowances for protein, minerals, and vitamin Sandwiches, fruit, and milk make good snacks for active teenagers. Food from the food pyramid may be part of any meal. A grilled cheese sandwich or a bowl of whole-grain cereal is just as nutritious in the morning as it is at noon. In addition, a good breakfast consists of any foods that supply about one-fourth of the necessary nutrients for the day.
69. The passage directly states that most of the U,S. population should increase their intake of .
A. protein B. fats C. starch and fiber D. sandwiches
70. A good breakfast should supply about what percentage of the necessary nutrients for the day?
A. One half. B. One-third. C. One-fourth. D. Less than one-fourth.
71. The passage implies which of the following?
A. The time of day when food is consumed affects its nutritive value.
B. Different foods can be combined to increase total nutrition value.
C. It can be detrimental to your health to eat breakfast foods later in the day.
D. When food is eaten has no bearing on its nutritive effects.
72. Why are RDAs regularly updated?
A. New discoveries in the science of nutrition are constantly being made.
B. Americans' diets are constantly changing.
C. As people age, their nutritional needs change.
D. Very little is currently known about nutrition.
73. In this passage RDAs refers to .
A. types of vitamins B. types of protein C. types of minerals
D. amounts of energy, protein, vitamins, and minerals
74. One implication in this passage is that
A. all RDAs have been established B. not all RDAs have been established yet
C. it's not important to know RDAs D. RDAs are necessary only for sick people
75. The reduction of ca!ories in the diet is particulfitly good for people who suffer from
A. obesity B. premature heart disease and diabetes
C. high blood pressure and cholesterol levels D. all of the above
Questions 76- 81 are based on the following passage.
The most popular organic gem is the pearl. A pearl is the response of a marine mollusk to the presence of an irritating impurity accidentally introduced into its body; a cultured pearl is the result of the intentional insertion of a mother-of-pearl bead into a live mollusk. Whether introduced accidentally or intentionally, the pearl-making process is the same: the mollusk coats the irritant with a substance called nacre. Nacre is composed chiefly of calcium carbonate. Because very few natural pearls are now on the market, most pearls used in fine jewelry are cultured. These include "Biwa" pearls and most other freshwater pearls. Cultured pearls are not easily distinguished from natural pearls except. by an expert.
76. Which of the following people could tell the difference between a cultured pearl and an organic pearl?
A. Scuba diver. B. Fisherman. C. Jeweler. D. Clerk.
77. What is the chief' component of nacre?
A. Sand. B. Bead. C. Calcium carbonate. D. Biwa.
78. The difference between a pearl and a cultured pearl is the nature of the .
A. color B. introduction of the irritating impurity C. coating material D. irritating impurity
79. Nacre is a substance that is .
A. mechanically manufactured B. the result of laboratory testing
C. organically secreted by the mollusk D. present in the chemical composition of freshwater pounds
80. The main idea in this passage is that .
A. most marketable pearls are cultured because nature does not produce enough of its own to satisfy the market
B. cultured pearls are of a higher quality than natural pearls
C. there are two major methods of pearl-making
D. a natural "drought" of pearl production is taking place
81. Cultured pearl is formed by .
A. insertion of a pearl into a live mollusk B. an oyster into which a piece of grit has been placed
C. putting in a live molluslk D. placing a bead into culture
Questions 82-87 are based on the following passage.
Stress is with us all the time. It comes from mental or emotional activity as well as physical activity. It is unique and personal to each of us. So personal3 in fact, that what may be relaxing to one person may ~:)e stressful to another. For example, if you're a busy executive who likes to keep occupied all of the time,
be extremely frustrating, nonproductive, "taking it easy" at the beach on a beautiful day may and upsetting. You may be emotionally distressed from "doing nothing.3' Too much emotional stress can cause physical illnesses such as high blood pressure, ulcers, or even heart disease. Physical stress from work or exercise is not likely to cause such ailments. The truth is that physical exercise can help you to relax and to better handle your mental or emotional stress.
82. Which of the following people would find "taking it easy" stressful?
A. Construction workers. B. Business executives. C. Farm workers. D. Truck drivers.
83. Which of the following would be a determinant as to what people find stressful?
A. Personality. B. Education. C. Marital status. D. Shoe size.
84. This article, published by the Department. of Health and Human Services, probably came from the
A. Federal Bureau of Investigation
B. Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Administration
C. Education Administration
D. Communicable Diseases Administration
85. A source of stress NOT specifically mentioned in this passage is .
A. educational activity B. physical activity C. mental activity D. emotional activity
86. Physical problems caused by emotional stress can appear as all of the following EXCEPT .
A. ulcers B. pregnancy C. heart disease D. high blood pressure
87. One method mentioned to help handle stress is .
A. physical exercise B. tranquilizers C. drugs D. taking it easy
Questions 88-92 are based on the following passage.
With the sudden onset of severe psychotic symptoms, the individual is said to be experiencing acute schizophrenia (特神分裂症). "Psychotic" means out of touch with reality, or unable to separate real from unreal experiences. Some people have only one such psychotic episode. Others have many episodes during a lifetime but lead relatively normal lives during interim periods. The individual with chronic (continuous or recurring) schizophrenia often does not fully recover normal functioning and typically requires long-term treatment, generally including medication, to control the symptom. These symptoms may include hallucinations (幻觉), incoherence, delusions,lack of judgment, deterioration of the abilities to reason and feel emotion, and a lack of interaction between the patient and his environment. The hallucinations may be a visual, auditory, or tactile. Some chronic schizophrenic patients may never be able to function without assistance of one sort or another.
88. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Hallucinations. B. Delusions. C. Incoherence. D. Vertigo.
89. It can be inferred from the passage that a person experiencing acute schizophrenia most likely .
A. cannot live without medication B. cannot go on living
C. can hold a full-time job D. cannot distinguish real from unreal
90. According to this passage, thinking that one can fly might be an example of .
A. medicine overdose B. being out of touch with reality
C. recovering normal functioning D. symptom control
91. The passage suggests that the beginning of severe psychotic symptoms of acute schizophrenia may be any of the following EXCEPT .
A. debilitating B. sudden occurrence C. occurring after. a long period of normalcy D. drug induced
92. The passage implies that normal life may be possible for the chronic schizophrenic with the help of
A. medicines B. neurotic episodes C. psychotic episodes D. time
Questions 93-100 are based on the following passage.
Aspirin is one of the safest and most effective drugs invented by man. The most popular medicine in the world today, it is an effective pain reliever. Its bad effects are relatively mild. It is also cheap.
For millions of people suffering from arthritis, it is the only thing that works. Aspirin, in short, is truly the 20th-century wonder drug. It is also the second largest suicide drug and is the leading cause of poisoning among children. It has side effects that, although relatively mild, are largely unrecognized among users.
Although aspirin was first sold by a German company in 1899, it has been around much longer than that. Hippocrates, in ancient Greece, understood the medical value of tree barks and leaves which today are known to contain a chemical found in aspirin. During the 19th century, there was a great deal of experimentation in Europe with this chemical, and it led to the introduction of aspirin. By 1915, aspirin tablets were available in the United States.
A small quantity of aspirin relieves pain and inflammation. It also reduces fever by affecting some of the body's reactions, Aspirin is very irritating to the stomach lining. The best way is to chew the tablets before swallowing them with water, but few people can stand the bitter taste. Some people suggest crushing the tablets in milk or orange juice.
93. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. Aspirin is good to arthritis sufferers. B. Aspirin may be used as suicide drug.
C. Aspirin is dangerous to small children. D. Aspirin has unrecognizable side effects.
94. The second paragraph points out that .
A. Aspirin is always safe B. aspirin can be dangerous
C. aspirin has been long used D. aspirin is not truly effective
95. Aspirin was invented in .
A. the 20th century B. the 19th century C. ancient Greece D. ancient Germany
96. The third paragraph describes the of aspirin.
A. uses B. value C. effects D. history
97. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Aspirin can relieve pain. B. Aspirin can reduce fever.
C. Aspirin can relieve inflammation. D. Aspirin can reduce stomach lining.
98. According to this passage, may NOT be the right way to take aspirin.
A. chewing the tablets B. swallowing the tablets C. crushing them in milk D. putting them in. Dishes
99. The author of this passage seems to be .
A. agairist aspirin B. in favor of aspirin C. ignorant of aspirin D. disinterested in aspirin
100. A good title for this passage would be:
A. Why Do We Take Aspirin? B. How Do We Take Aspirin?
C. Aspirin: The Unknown Side Effects. D. Aspirin: The Most Popular Medicine.
Section 3: Cloze Test (20 Points)
In the following passage, there are 20 blanks representing words that are missing from the context. You are to provide each. of the blanks with the missing word. The time for this section is 20 minutes. Write your answers on the ANSWER SHEET. The time for this section is 20 minutes.
A good translator is by definition bilingual. The opposite is not (l) true, however. A born and bred bilingual will still need two (2) to become a translator: first, the skills and experience necessary for (3); second, knowledge of the field in which he or shewill (4). The skills and experience for translation include the ability to write (5) in the target language, the ability to read and understand the (6) language material thoroughly, and the ability to work with the latest (7) and communication hardware and software.
Does a born and bred bilingual (8) a better translator than someone who learned language B later in (9) ? There is no definite answer, but the following issues are important. (10), a born and bred bilingual often suffers from not truly knowing (11) language well enough to translate, with some even suffering from what (12) known as a lingualism, a state in which a person lacks (13) full, fluent command of any language. Second, born and bred bilinguals (14) don’t know the culture of the target language well enough to (15) top-quality translations, or cannot recognize what aspects of the source language (16) its culture need to be treated with particular care, as they (17) in a sense too close to the language. And last, they often (18) the analytical linguistic skills to work through a sticky text.
On ( 19) other hand, the acquired bilingual may not have the same in-depth (20) of colloquialism, slang, and dialect that the born bilingual has. Also. the acquired bilingual will not be able to translate as readily in both directions (from B to language A and A to language B). Finally, born bilinguals often have a greater appreciation of the subtleties and nuances of both their languages than someone who learns their B language later in life can ever hope to have.
参考答案：
Section l (25分，每题 0.5分)
Part 1
1-5 BAACA 6-10 CCCCA 11-15 BDBCC 16-20 BBADC
Part 2
21-25 CBBAC 26-30 DAAAA 31-35 CABDB
Part 3
36-40 AADAB 41-45 BCADC 46-50 DABCD
Section 2 (55分，51-90题每题 1分，91-100题每题 1.5分)
51-55 DCBAB 56-60 DCABC 61-65 BCDCA 66-70 DCBCC
71-75 BADBD 76-80 CCBCC 81-85 BBABA 86-90 BADDB
91-95 DACBB 96-100 DDDBD
Section 3 (20分，每空1分)
1. necessarily 2. things 3. Translation 4. translate 5. well
6. source 7. word-processing 8. make 9. life 10. First
11. any 12. is 13. a 14. often 15. provide
16. and 17. are 18. lack 19. the 20. knowledge